Most readers will have had at least some exposure to John Searle’s interview by Tim Crane, which was published earlier this week. It was then hotly debated in the philosophical blogosphere at large (in particular at the Leiter Reports). Together with Peter Unger’s interview published roughly around the same time, it seems that the ā€˜old guard’ is on a Quixotesque crusade to chastise the younger crowd for the allegedly misguided, sorrow state of current philosophy. Now, I do think there is some truth to be found in what Searle says about the role of formal modeling in the philosophy of language, but his objections do not seem to apply at least to a growing body of research in formal semantics/philosophy of language. Moreover, it is not clear whether his own preferred methodology (judging from his seminal work on speech acts etc.) in fact does justice to what he himself views as the primary goal of philosophical analyses of language.

Here are the crucial passages from the interview (all excerpts from the passage posted by Leiter), the main bits in bold:

Well, what has happened in the subject I started out with, the philosophy of language, is that, roughly speaking, formal modeling has replaced insight. My own conception is that the formal modeling by itself does not give us any insight into the function of language.

Any account of the philosophy of language ought to stick as closely as possible to the psychology of actual human speakers and hearers. And that doesn’t happen now. What happens now is that many philosophers aim to build a formal model where they can map a puzzling element of language onto the formal model, and people think that gives you an insight. …

And this goes back to Russell’s Theory of Descriptions. … I think this was a fatal move to think that you’ve got to get these intuitive ideas mapped on to a calculus like, in this case, the predicate calculus, which has its own requirements. It is a disastrously inadequate conception of language.

… That’s my main objection to contemporary philosophy: they’ve lost sight of the questions. It sounds ridiculous to say this because this was the objection that all the old fogeys made to us when I was a kid in Oxford and we were investigating language. But that is why I’m really out of sympathy. And I’m going to write a book on the philosophy of language in which I will say how I think it ought to be done, and how we really should try to stay very close to the psychological reality of what it is to actually talk about things.

I am largely in agreement with Searle both on what the ultimate goals of philosophy of language should be, and on the failure of much (though not all!) of the work currently done with formal methods to achieve this goal. Firstly, I agree that ā€œany account of the philosophy of language ought to stick as closely as possible to the psychology of actual human speakers and hearersā€. Language should not be seen as a freestanding entity, as a collection of structures to be investigated with no connection to the most basic fact about human languages, namely that they are used by humans, and an absolutely crucial component of human life. (I take this to be a general Wittgensteinian point, but one which can be endorsed even if one does not feel inclined to buy the whole Wittgenstein package.)

I also agree that much of what is done under the banner of ā€˜formal semantics’ does not satisfy the requirement of sticking as closely as possible to the psychology of actual human speakers and hearers. In my four years working at the Institute for Logic, Language and Computation (ILLC) in Amsterdam, I’ve attended (and even chaired!) countless talks where speakers presented a sophisticated formal machinery to account for a particular feature of a given language, but the machinery was not intended in any way to be a description of the psychological phenomena underlying the relevant linguistic phenomena. It became one of my standard questions at such talks: ā€œDo you intend your formal model to correspond to actual cognitive processes in language users?ā€ More often than not, the answer was simply ā€œNoā€, often accompanied by a puzzled look that basically meant ā€œWhy would I even want that?ā€. My general response to this kind of research is very much along the lines of what Searle says.

However, there is much work currently being done, broadly within the formal semantics tradition, that does not display this lack of connection with the ā€˜psychological reality’ of language users. Some of the people I could mention here are (full disclosure: these are all colleagues or former colleagues!) Petra Hendriks, Jakub Szymanik, Katrin Schulz, and surely many others. (Further pointers in comments are welcome.) In particular, many of these researchers combine formal methods with empirical methods, for example conducting experiments of different kinds to test the predictions of their theories. In this body of research, formalisms are used to formulate theories in a precise way, leading to the design of new experiments and the interpretation of results. Formal models are thus producing new insights into the nature of language use (pace Searle), which are then put to test empirically. 

And this brings me to my second objection to Searle: to what extent do the ā€˜traditional’ methodologies in philosophy of language, in particular the methodologies employed by the ordinary language philosophy school (to which Searle may be said to belong), in fact stick as closely as possible to the psychology of language users? It seems to me that the best, if not the only, way to stick closely to the psychology of language users is to resort systematically to empirical methods, like conducting experiments or examining large corpora of text or speech (among others) – in other words, precisely the kinds of methods the people I was talking about in the previous paragraph seem to be employing, alongside formal methods.

But this is not what Searle and many other philosophers of language seem to have done or still do: by and large, these ā€˜traditional’ methods consist in consulting one’s own linguistic intuitions, being thus essentially introspection-based, or at best discussing one’s intuitions with one’s (equally philosophically trained) colleagues. As many have argued before me, it is not in any way clear that the introspection-based methodology is adequate to make these theories sufficiently empirically informed, and thus close to the psychology of language users. (But perhaps I am interpreting ā€˜psychology of language users’ in a way different from Searle’s.)

(On this topic, here is a plug for the spectacular Routledge Companion to Philosophy of Language, edited by Gillian Russell and Delia Graff Fara, which among other awesome features contains a whole section on different methodologies. Plus, the paperback edition is coming out next week!)

Thus, I conclude that it is not the use of formal methods as such that alienates the philosopher of language or linguist from ā€œthe psychological reality of what it is to actually talk about thingsā€. Formal methods can (and perhaps should!) be employed in the analysis of language, provided that other methodologies also be brought in, in particular methodologies that increase the empirical content of these theories.

 

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10 responses to “Searle on formal methods in philosophy of language”

  1. Jeffrey Ketland Avatar
    Jeffrey Ketland

    Catarina, the objection is: the description of a language L has no empirical content. For example, let L be such that
    (i) L has exactly two sentences S1 and S2.
    (ii) S1 is true in L iff pigs can fly.
    (iii) S2 is true in L iff fish swim.
    This semantic description is conservative over any set of empirical facts. Roughly, the argument is this. Let I be an interpretation of the empirical sublanguage in question, assumed to lack the predicates “sentence in L” and “true in L” and which fixes truth values I(“pigs can fly”) and I(“fish swim”). Then expand I to I*, by defining “sentence in L” to have extension {S1,S2} in I* and defining the extension of “true in L” in I* depending on I(p) and I(q). Since any interpretation expands, we get that the semantics is conservative. (This is a bit wrong, but I don’t want to get into details.)
    So, to get an empirical prediction from (i)-(iii), one needs extra “bridge laws”.
    Jeff

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  2. Michael Kremer Avatar
    Michael Kremer

    Jeffrey Ketland: what part of what Katarina wrote is that an objection to? It seems to me to be exactly the sort of thing she is objecting to, and in fact to make her point for her. (To be boringly explicit: to call your (i)-(iii) a “description of a language” is surely to violate this: “language should not be seen as a freestanding entity, as a collection of structures to be investigated with no connection to the most basic fact about human languages, namely that they are used by humans, and an absolutely crucial component of human life.” I am thinking especially of the idea that there could be a “language” satisfying (i).)

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  3. Jeffrey Ketland Avatar
    Jeffrey Ketland

    Michael, it’s an objection to the claim “language should not be seen as a freestanding entity, as a collection of structures to be investigated with no connection to the most basic fact about human languages, namely that they are used by humans, and an absolutely crucial component of human life.” So, the objection is to that – a language can be seen as a free-standing entity. For the semantic description of a language (i.e., description of its syntax and its meaning functions, which map strings to semantic values) has no empirical content per se: it is consistent with any observation claim. On the other hand, it’s empirically testable whether a given agent speaks a particular language. So, “A speaks L” is empirically testable. For example, “Ludwig speaks Esperanto”, “Rudolf speaks Esperanto”, etc., are testable. Apparently, Rudolf did, while Ludwig was not happy with the whole idea. But what it is for an agent to speak a particular language is hard to pin down.
    Jeff

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  4. Michael Kremer Avatar
    Michael Kremer

    Jeff, How is it an objection to Catarina’s claim, to produce a freestanding entity, go ahead and call it “a language,” and then say, see, a language can be seen as a free-standing entity? This looks like begging the question, and I sense at best a talking past one another here…
    Consider Lewis’s “Languages and Language,” which employs a conception of “a language” like that you use. In his first Objection and Reply, Lewis in effect grants that the things you are calling “languages” (“the so-called languages of the thesis” — my emphasis) really just comprise “an easily specified superset of the languages we are really interested in.” But to specify that set of “so-called languages” — “those entities that could possibly… be used by a human population”) is not easy, and will require the kind of attention to actual empirical facts that Catarina is asking for in philosophy of language.

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  5. Michael Schmitz Avatar

    Thank you for this post, Catarina, the most thoughtful and constructive of the many responses to Searle’s comments that I have seen. Let me begin with a general remark. It seems to me a while ago a split occurred in (analytic) philosophy that is becoming ever more pronounced. It used to be that many philosophers of language, respectively linguistic philosophers, would appeal to both broadly metaphysical considerations and to considerations of usage – though, as you say, to the latter only in a not empirically rigorous and somewhat selective way – in the quest for the right analysis of what certain expressions ‘really mean’. This is still true, for example, of the Kripke of ‘Naming & Necessity’, and the Putnam of ‘The Meaning of “Meaning”‘. But it was never clear how we could expect metaphysical considerations and considerations of usage to come to the same thing, and so it is not surprising that more recently they have tended to come apart. With the revival of metaphysics triggered by Kripke and Putnam, we now have one strand of philosophers who embrace metaphysics and formal methods, hoping that the latter will finally give legitimacy to the quest for a scientific metaphysics, but pay less if any attention to usage. On the other hand, there are those who embrace more empirically rigorous methods, either by doing empirical research into usage themselves in Experimental Philosophy, or by closely cooperating with mind sciences in trying to create a more empirically informed philosophy of mind. But these latter philosophers don’t normally use formal methods.
    Now, you are asking in effect: couldn’t, shouldn’t we be doing both, bringing together the best of these worlds in a philosophy of language that uses formal methods and is empirically rigorous at the same time? Of course it would be nice if one could, but it’s unclear to me how the formal language is thought to relate to the natural language that it is supposed to model. To formalize a language is to improve it in certain ways, at least in certain respects and with regard to certain purposes, but by the same token formalization leads us away from the natural language. As Searle says, it brings its own requirements with it, we need to make precise certain things that are not precise in the natural language, answer certain questions that normally speakers of the language never ask themselves, and so on. But how does that make us understand natural language better, except by making us see more clearly in which way it is different? And perhaps the precision and rigid regimentation of formal languages can only function against the background of a natural language that is essentially more flexible and fluid, as I think Wittgenstein, whom you refer to, thought? This would mean that essential features of natural language cannot be captured through formalization. So it seems to me more explanation is necessary on how formal methods are intended to apply in this context and how they are supposed to be advantageous. It is important to see that the considerations that make mathematisiation a no-brainer in the sciences do not necessarily apply to the study of language. Moreover, I think that the empirical theories of language, including linguistic theories of meaning, which are currently best supported, most fruitful and make the most credible claim to psychological adequacy, embrace a non-formal approach. I am thinking of the tradition of Cognitive Linguistics here, notably Langacker’s usage-based approach to grammar and meaning and Tomasello’s application of this approach to understand developmental data. But of course you may disagree with this and if you can even be more successful with a formal approach, more power to you!
    One final comment about the point you raise regarding Searle’s use of armchair introspective methods. Here it sounds to me (though I may be misinterpreting you) as if you want to replace rather than supplement those with more rigorous empirical methods. Here I would like to ask, why not both? I think we should not forgo such an important source of evidence but rather try to integrate introspective / phenomenological evidence and usage evidence – and of course also developmental and neurological evidence and possibly other sources of evidence as well. It’s hard to see how we could understand the phenomenology of language without using introspective evidence. And the fact that mainstream philosophy of language still pays little attention to consciousness is certainly a main source of the frustration vented by Searle, and it seems to me he is right that it is central and needs to be addressed more.

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  6. Charles R Avatar
    Charles R

    Is ‘can be seen’ an objection to ‘should not be seen’?
    Jeff, what do you take Catarina to mean when she’s talking about using empirical methods to test the predictions of the models?

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  7. Jeffrey Ketland Avatar
    Jeffrey Ketland

    Michael, right – Lewis has two notions, an abstract view of languages as free-standing entities, and a social-psychological view of language. From “General Semantics” (1970), “My proposals will also not conform to the expectations of those who, in analyzing meaning, turn immediately to the psychology and sociology of language users: to intentions, sense-experience, and mental ideas, or to social rules, conventions, and regularities. I distinguish two topics: first, the description of possible languages or grammars as abstract semantic systems whereby symbols are associated with aspects of the world; and second, the description of the psychological and sociological facts whereby a particular one of these abstract semantic systems is the one used by a person or population. Only confusion comes of mixing these two topics.”
    These “abstract semantic systems” (“free-standing entities”) are what formal semanticists, philosophical logicians, etc., study, and that’s the topic of the Amsterdam talks that Catarina means. But if one defines in detail the syntax and semantics of one such L, then this doesn’t have any empirical consequences at all! The theories don’t yield any predictions at all. All the empirical content is in conjectures of the form “agent/population A speaks/uses/cognizes L”. But specifying what constitutes speaking a language (or using a certain logic) is difficult. In physics, even to get a prediction from div B = 0 you need to add bridge laws saying how B affects bits of metal, moving charges, Hall probes, etc. All on its own, the equation has no empirical consequences. In the case of semantics, the required bridge laws need to connect the properties of L to properties of speakers of L.
    Charles, the empirical methods involve thing like: we observe a certain pattern P of accepted/rejected sentences. Then, if we assume certain bridge laws, a logic L may, e.g., “overgenerate/undergenerate” with respect to this pattern. Catarina wrote a nice post on this just the other day
    http://www.newappsblog.com/2014/06/preferential-logics-supraclassicality-and-human-reasoning.html
    But then one can ask: what are the assumed bridge laws that connect the properties of L to the potentially observable properties of speakers of L? How does pragmatics figure in this? Does age count? Intelligence? How much difference does context or culture make?
    Jeff

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  8. Catarina Dutilh Novaes Avatar

    Hi all, sorry for the silence the last couple of days, but this is a nice discussion. Jeff and I have long-standing disagreements of this kind (which include e.g. the notion of a mathematical proof: he sees proofs as free standing entities which are correct or not depending on whether they instantiate the valid rules of the relevant system; I see proofs as discourse intended to persuade a putative audience of some claim.), but these are healthy disagreements šŸ™‚
    To follow up on these two notions of a language that have been discussed here (roughly following Lewis). One may well think that there are these two different projects, pertaining to these two conceptions of language, that a philosopher of language can engage in, both at least prima facie legitimate. My point in the post was to take Searle’s own position on which of these two projects is more important, which which I agree (languages as used by humans, not as free standing entities), but then raise the question of whether the methodology he himself espouses does justice to the core of the project. This in the context of his methodological objection to formal methods in philosophy of language.
    I argued that formal methods could well serve the purpose of studying a language ‘as she is spoke’ (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_As_She_Is_Spoke), but in combination with empirical methods. I also argued that ‘traditional’, intuition-based methods are not sufficient to achieve Searle’s own professed goals. All this was premised on a preference for one of the two projects in question (both mine and Searle’s), but I didn’t take the post to argue against the other project. That’s for another time šŸ˜‰

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  9. Jeffrey Ketland Avatar
    Jeffrey Ketland

    Catarina, I can see what Searle finds annoying. Suppose we say, with Lewis, there are two projects, the A project (with its “free-standing abstract systems”) and the B project (“a social-psychological phenomenon”). So, at ILLC, there are A-talks all week: on Monday, DA describes L1, on Tuesday JvB describes L2, on Wednesday VH describes L3, and …: so you ask “how do these L’s model the psychology of actual language speakers?”, and the reply is a puzzled look. (I asked Volker yesterday – he has confessed.) So, the A-talks raise B-questions. My response would be the one I mentioned before – there’s no empirical content in the A-talk anyway!
    But you raise an interesting methodological problem anyway – irrespective of whether one is more interested in A-talks or B-talks: how are A and B connected? For example, we want to see if some fancy logic L overgenerates/undergenerates with respect to psychology & speech behaviour. So, there is some data D about speech behaviour, and D somehow supports, or undermines, the hypothesis that speakers use this language L. It’s this connection that is unclear. Maybe this is a more vivid example. We assume the bridge law,
    (B) If A speaks a language where “if …” is a material conditional and A denies “if P then Q”, then A should accept P.
    I.e., because ~(P->Q) implies P. Someone does an experiment on A, and gets some data like this,
    (D) There are cases where A denies “if P then Q”, but also denies P too.
    From these, it follows that the “if …” of A’s language is not a material conditional. But: is (B) the right bridge law? There might be all sorts of Gricean objections to (B), and others too.
    Jeff

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  10. Glen Avatar
    Glen

    “I’m going to write a book on the philosophy of language in which I will say how I think it ought to be done, and how we really should try to stay very close to the psychological reality of what it is to actually talk about things.”
    Too late. That book was written in 1957 And it is Verbal Behavior, and the author is Fred Skinner.

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