Tonight I was fondly recalling Michael Hand and Jonathan Kvanvig's old paper on Tennant's solution to Fitch's Paradox (it's a beautiful read) and a weird thought occured to me.

Hand and Kvanvig argue that Tennant's solution would be analogous to a set theorist responding to Russell's Paradox by proposing naive set theory with Frege's comprehension axiom restricted to instances that don't allow one to prove absurdity from that instance and the other axioms (call this theory N'). For Hand and Kvanvig this is a reductio of Tennant, and in my response* I argued that Tennant's solution was not actually analogous to N'.

If I remember right, Hand and Kvanvig argue that N' is bad because it doesn't illuminate the nature of sets in the way we properly expect of solutions to paradoxes. But they don't go into the logical properties of N' at all, and tonight I'm thinking that this is actually an important question in its own right. Let's just consider consistency, completeness, and axiomatizability.


Is N' consistent? I can't prove this (I'm in that penumbral region between not being a logician and being a terrible one), but it looks consistent. Could some finite (because compactness) set of instances of comprehension that on their own don't entail absurdity jointly entail absurdity? If not, then N' is consistent. If the problem does occur, then one could propose N'', which is naive set theory with every instance of comprehension that does not entail absurdity when paired with any finite set of instances of comprehension that do not entail absurdity on their own. In what follows I'll assume that N' is consistent, but if not the following questions could be raised about N''.

Is N' incomplete? Again I don't know how one might prove that. You couldn't do kind of proof I'm familiar with unless you knew that the set of sentences in N' were recursively enumerable, or equivalently by Craig's Theorem, axiomatizable.

There's an intuitive sense in which N' is complete. Arguably, the whole purpose of non-naive set theory has been to axiomatize a system that gets you as much of comprehension as you can get without generating contradictions. If that's correct, then (assuming it's consistent) a theory that generates the truths of N' is the theory that people have been aiming at.

But then this raises the question of whether the goal is achievable. That is, assuming N' is complete, is it axiomatizable? It has the feeling of not being so. Consider the analogous (albeit inconsistent) theory where you take all of the sentences that prove absurdity out of the language of first order logic, so what you are left with are the logical truths and logical contingencies. This theory is provably non-enumerable/unaxiomatizable. If it were enumerable, then the set of inconsistent sentences would be decidable (since that set is already enumerable), but they provably aren't.

Again though, the analogous argument would only work if we knew computability type facts about the set of sentences that entail absurdity in naive set theory.

In any case, if the correct set theory coincides in the set of truths with N', and N' is not axiomatizable, then the correct set theory would not be axiomatizable. If, big if, that were the case, then Russell's paradox showed us something different from what we normally take to be the case.**

[Notes:

*I wish I'd understood Graham Priest's work as I do now when I wrote the section showing the similarities between Fitch's proof and the paradox of the stone, an analogy on which my defense of Tennant stands. I keep meaning to go back and respond to Timothy Williamson's argument against Tennant, which is interesting in its own right. I even had half a paper written at one point, but over the last decade I kept getting sidetracked by other projects.

**As noted above, I'm not a logician. When I get a weird idea like this, it's only around half the time there's something interesting in it that hasn't been published already. But, given Tennant's work, any corrections and/or pointers to relevant articles would be really helpful for thinking more deeply about Fitch's paradox in light of Hand and Kvanvig's analogy.]

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6 responses to “Did Russell’s Paradox entail that set theory is incomplete (if axiomatized)?”

  1. Jonathan Avatar
    Jonathan

    Regarding the question of whether N’ is consistent, I think that the answer is no, as long as we’re allowed to have instances of comprehension with parameters. For then we have the following instances:
    (1) ∃x∀y(y∈x ↔ y∈z & y∉y)
    (2) ∃x∀y(y∈x ↔ y=y)
    (These are obviously instances of set comprehension, but one could do the same thing with concept comprehension. I’m not sure which it is that you mean by ‘Frege’s comprehension axiom’, since he didn’t have one as such, but rather a substitution rule with the same effect.)
    (1) is just an instance of the separation scheme, which is presumably consistent (ZFC, for example, features such an instance of comprehension). (2) says there’s a universal set, and this is probably consistent (NF features such an instance of comprehension, and it probably consistent). So (1) and (2) are individually consistent, but jointly inconsistent (together with the other axioms), since they allow you to infer the problematic instance of comprehension.
    But, as you say, this is somewhat of a moot point, since we could move to M” in any case.

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  2. Gareth Avatar
    Gareth

    I don’t remember their properties, since I haven’t read about it for ages, but there’s been a reasonable amount of discussion of consistent fragments of Frege’s theory, which you can get from restricting comprehension (and some other things).
    I remember reading a couple of Kai Wehmeier’s papers on this and finding them very interesting. In one of them (I think the Russell’s paradox one) he discusses a fragment which I think he shows is the strongest consistent one obtainable by restricting comprehension:
    “Consistent Fragments of Grundgesetze and the Existence of Non-Logical Objects,” Synthese 121, 1999, 309-328.
    “Russell’s Paradox in Consistent Fragments of Frege’s Grundgesetze”, in: Godehard Link (ed.), One Hundred Years of Russell’s Paradox, de Gruyter 2004, 247-257.

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  3. Luca Incurvati Avatar
    Luca Incurvati

    Answers to some of the questions you raise can be found in the forthcoming article ‘Maximally consistent sets of instances of Naive Comprehension’, which I have co-authored with Julien Murzi. A preprint is available on my publications page:
    https://sites.google.com/site/lucaincurvati/publications
    Main points:
    – There are instances of Naive Comprehension that are individually consistent but jointly inconsistent. Thus, if I’ve understood what you meant, your N’ is inconsistent.
    – There are multiple and yet incompatible maximally consistent sets of instances of Naive Comprenesion (which is, I take it, what you would take to be N”).
    – Each of these sets of NC-instances is complete.
    – By the (interpretability version of the) Goedel-Rosser incompleteness theorem, it follows that each of these sets, if it interprets Robinson Arithmetic, cannot be recursively axiomatized.
    The situation here is analogous to the situation that McGee showed to obtain in the case of truth and the T-Schema.
    Luca

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  4. Jon Cogburn Avatar

    Wow, that’s absolutely fantastic!
    The paper answers all the questions and I love how you can able to get completeness and non-axiomatizability (which together would entail incompleteness in the sense that we talk about when talking about Goedel’s theorems, i.e. any axiomatization will be incomplete) for every maximally consistent subset of naive set theory. That’s astonishing.
    It’s weird how your results come historically after set theorists have discovered plausible theorems that are undecided by strong axiomatizations. In the case of Goedel’s Theorems, a significant chunk of Harvey Friedman’s (and I’m sure others) research has gone in the opposite direction. Trying to get plausible sentences that are undecided by strong axiomatizations. The Goedel-Friedman analog would be Cohen seeing your results as a spur to prove that something as simple as the Continuum Hypothesis was independent.
    I think analogy might break down for second order. Almost all of the popular presentations of Goedel’s Theorem don’t mention that second order arithmetic is complete yet unaxiomatizable.* But (if I’m understanding right, I haven’t read the paper yet) you and Murzi have all of these first-order fragments of naive set theory that are complete and and non-axiomatizable. Is there any analog in first-order arithmetic? And in the reverse direction, is their any analog in set theory of second order arithmetic (being complete and unaxiomatizable)? Sorry if this question betrays ignorance.
    In any case, thanks again to you and Julien for proving something so cool. In Paul Livingston’s The Politics of Logic he argues that Russell’s Paradox forces you to chose between inconsistent totality and consistent pluralities. I think your results provide pretty strong evidence that he is right.
    [*Of course, mod worries about second order logic and “the intended interpretation” that Mark Lance has raised in this forum before.]

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  5. Luca Incurvati Avatar
    Luca Incurvati

    Thank you for your kind words, Jon.
    Perhaps True Arithmetic — the set of all sentences that are true in the standard model N — would be a prime example of a consistent but non-axiomatizable first-order theory of arithmetic. In any event, unless we add a (naive) truth-predicate to the language of arithmetic, it is not clear whether there is an analogy between our results and PA, since (setting dialetheist views of arithmetic aside) we don’t have an inconsistent naive arithmetic.
    All best,
    Luca and Julien

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  6. Luca Incurvati Avatar
    Luca Incurvati

    As for set theory, I don’t know whether you are thinking of something like second-order ZFC (ZFC2 for short), which is quasi-categorical, and categoricity implies semantic completeness. Thus, we get the following: any sentence concerning the hierarchy up to V_\kappa (where \kappa is the first inaccessible) is decided by ZFC2 (in the sense that for each such sentence \sigma, either ZFC2 semantically implies \sigma or it semantically implies its negation). One such \sigma is the Continuum Hypothesis, as Kreisel pointed out. On the other hand, ZFC2 proof-theoretically implies neither CH nor its negation. This was proved by Weston.

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