Carolyn Dicey Jennings has a post up discussing the unfortunate implications of criticizing a person’s views in terms of their presumed (lack of) intelligence. I agree with much of what she says there (though I don’t think the issue is exclusively or even predominantly about criticism of women and members of other disadvantaged groups, even if impacts these groups to a greater extent). I want however to bring up another aspect of Brian Leiter’s criticism of Carolyn’s analysis, namely his use of the adjective ‘nonsense’, and connect it to what seems to be a pervasive but somewhat questionable practice among philosophers.

In fact, I was thinking of such a post even before reading Carolyn’s post. The idea was prompted by a conversation with Chris Menzel over lunch last week in Munich. Chris was telling me about some of his thoughts on Williamson’s Modal Logic as Metaphysics, and how Williamson describes the actualism vs. possibilism debate as ‘confused’, i.e. as something that he cannot make sense of. So technically, Williamson is (here) not accusing specific people of holding nonsensical positions, but according to him this is a nonsensical debate, as it were. (Chris Menzel is working on a paper on this material where he objects to Williamson's diagnosis of the debate.)

The notion of ‘nonsense’ has an interesting philosophical (recent) history, dating back at least to the Tractatus, and then later appropriated by the Vienna Circle. (I’d be interested to hear of earlier systematic uses of the notion of nonsense for philosophical purposes.) So, to be sure, it is in itself a philosophically interesting notion, but I think it becomes problematic when 'this is nonsense!' counts as a legitimate, acceptable move in a philosophical debate.


The ‘this is nonsense!’ objection and its variants (‘this is silly!’, ‘you can’t possibly mean that’, ‘I can’t get my head around it’ etc.) is viewed in many philosophical circles as a legitimate move in the game of philosophical debating. (I associate this practice in particular with Oxford-style philosophy, but I may be wrong on that, and at any rate it is present in many other places.) This is a sociological observation, and thus ultimately an empirical claim, but one that I think most people would agree with. It is not of the same level of personalization as remarks on one’s presumed (lack of) intelligence, but in my opinion it is problematic for a number of reasons.

Firstly, there is of course the significant difference between saying that a position, or statement, is wrong, and saying that it is nonsense. The idea of nonsense suggests that the position in question does not even deserve to be engaged with; it is hopeless from the start. A nonsensical position does not deserve to be a voice in the debate: it falls out of the space of reasons, and as such has no potential contribution to make (in terms of the productivity of dissent defended e.g. by Mill). Thus, the ‘this is nonsense!’ objection effectively acts as a silencer (in much the same way as the more personalized criticism that Carolyn discusses in her post). It is basically a conversation-stopper, not a move that facilitates the fruitful exchange of ideas and views.

Secondly, the ‘nonsense’ objection shifts the burden of communication too much (and unjustly) towards one of the interlocutors. In a dialogical interaction, the burden of communication is shared between the participants; senders must ensure that they convey their messages in a sufficiently clear way, but receivers must also make an effort to engage with and interpret what is being said in a fruitful way. By describing a given position as nonsense, the receiver is effectively disavowing her responsibility to be cooperative in the communication. The move basically amounts to: ‘It is entirely your responsibility to formulate your position in a way that is fully intelligible to me.’

Naturally, I do not want to say that describing a position as ‘nonsense’ is never to be permitted: presumably, some positions are in fact 'nonsensical' in some sense or another, for example if they entail contradictory conclusions. (But even inconsistent positions may be interesting and non-trivial, as paracosistent logicians have been telling us for decades now.) It is one of the goals of a philosophical conversation to expose incoherent positions as such (going back to the idea of an elenchus in ancient Greek philosophy). But I want to suggest here that the ‘this is nonsense!’ objection is permissible only if the objector takes it upon herself to show why the position is nonsensical. It is not enough to say ‘it is nonsensical because I don’t understand it’; in fact, to truly establish that a position is nonsensical, arguably one must first understand it quite well. In other words, I submit that the burden of proof is on the objector to show that the position is nonsensical, not on the proponent of the position to show that it is not.

More generally, this is a plea for a more restricted use of the ‘this is nonsense!’ objection as a dialectical move in a philosophical debate. The best philosophers I know are those who are perfectly capable of ‘demolishing’ a position with arguments (though I hesitate to use the bellicose vocabulary here), i.e. by actively engaging with a position, rather than dismissing it as nonsense and incomprehensible.

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25 responses to “Against the ‘this is nonsense!’ objection”

  1. Jonathan Avatar
    Jonathan

    It seems to me that the ‘this is nonsense’ objection to a position or debate, made in good faith, and not as a mere rhetorical device (or insult) needn’t be as dismissive as you suggest. The reason is that a claim that a debate or view is nonsense need not be a claim that it’s obviously nonsense, and so ‘hopeless from the start’. It is perfectly open to the accused to reply by saying ‘it’s not nonsense, and here’s why’.
    What is problematic is the dismissal of something as nonsense without argument, but I don’t see why that’s any more problematic is simply dismissing something as false without argument. (And such an argument need not take the form of showing that a position entails a contradiction. It may, for example, take the form of showing that the debate is couched in terms that are ill-defined for some reason, so that the position is genuinely not understandable, despite appearing to be so.)
    Given that, I don’t see why there should be any general principles about who has the burden of proof, any more than there are general principles concerning the burden of proof when somebody claims that a position is false. If the accuser of nonsense has good reasons for thinking that a claim is nonsense (since it’s couched in ill-defined or ambiguous terms) then the burden is probably on the accusee to show why these reasons are faulty. If the accuser simply hasn’t tried to understand the position, then the burden is on them to show that this is due to some underlying problems with the formulation of the position.

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  2. P Avatar
    P

    The venerable tradition of accusing others of speaking nonsense goes all the way back to Plato and Aristotle (see, say, De Anima 1.1).

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  3. Charles Pigden Avatar

    For the more recent history of this maneuver plus some moral and intellectual criticisms, see my (2010) ‘Coercive Theories of Meaning or Why Language Should Not Matter (So Much) to Philosophy’ Logique, et Analyse, 210 , 151-184. (It’s also available on PhilPapers and Academia.edu.) Hobbes and Wittgenstein are the chief culprits though they are very far from being the only ones.

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  4. Matt Lister Avatar

    I noticed this paper before I saw that Charles had posted, but wanted to put a link to this:
    https://www.academia.edu/7605154/Have_Philosophical_Accusations_Of_Talking_Nonsense_Been_Treated_With_Unmerited_Respect
    I have only looked at the first page and have no idea if it’s any good, but it does directly address Charles’s argument, and the topic in general. (The author, Ian Dearden, whom I don’t know, seems to have several more papers on the subject on his academia page.)

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  5. Michael Kremer Avatar
    Michael Kremer

    I agree with both the end of the OP — “the ‘this is nonsense!’ objection is permissible only if the objector takes it upon herself to show why the position is nonsensical. It is not enough to say ‘it is nonsensical because I don’t understand it’; in fact, to truly establish that a position is nonsensical, arguably one must first understand it quite well. In other words, I submit that the burden of proof is on the objector to show that the position is nonsensical, not on the proponent of the position to show that it is not.” — and the remarks of Jonathan at #1. I would like to point out — contra Charles Pigden’s mishandling of Wittgenstein in the essay which he mentions, where he attributes to the man who insisted that philosophy is not a theory [Tractatus 4.112] and that philosophy can produce no substantial doctrines [PI 128] a “coercive theory of meaning” — that this coheres with Wittgenstein’s practice and recommendations in both the Tractatus and later works. One cannot simply proclaim that what another person says is nonsense. One has to “demonstrate to him that he had given no meaning to certain signs in his propositions” (Tractatus 6.53, my emphasis). So the use of the charge of nonsense has to be backed up by an argument (for instance one might try to convince the person who is accused of nonsense that they have equivocated, and have thereby failed to fix determinately what they mean by their words — a possibility Wittgenstein refers to at numerous points). And for the charge to stick the argument has to be one that at least ought to be persuasive to its target. As he puts in later, in the Big Typescript:
    “One of the most important tasks is to express all false thought processes so characteristically that the reader says, ‘Yes, that’s exactly the way I meant it’. To make a tracing of the physiognomy of every error.
    Indeed we can only convict someone else of a mistake if he acknowledges that this really is the expression of his feeling. [if he (really) acknowledges this expression as the correct expression of his feeling.]
    For only if he acknowledges it as such, is it the correct expression. (Psychoanalysis.)
    What the other person acknowledges is the analogy I am proposing to him as the source of his thought.”

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  6. Timothy Gowers Avatar

    I agree that merely saying “This is nonsense” is aggressive and disrespectful of what is likely to be a highly considered view. But I also think that there are many philosophical arguments in the literature to which the objection applies. (But I am sympathetic to Wittgenstein, Oxford philosophers, etc.) To give one example, when I read somebody arguing for presentism, I feel a strong urge to say, “I just don’t understand what the difference is between the view you are expressing and the negation of that view.” But I also realize that my claim that there isn’t a substantial difference is one that is quite hard to articulate satisfactorily.

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  7. Jonathan K Avatar
    Jonathan K

    One might ask the same question about the used-all-the-time-by-philosophers accusation that an argument or paper or talk is “incoherent,” as if the person is speaking or writing gibberish or is ranting hysterically or simply cannot be understand, as opposed simply to saying something one disagrees with.

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  8. jdkbrown Avatar
    jdkbrown

    I once had an APA interview in which I was confronted with the nonsense objection: “You say phi–I don’t understand.” I, being nervous, and perhaps somewhat naive, patiently explained, only to be met with “I just don’t understand your view.” Now, with a bit more experience–and a job!–I’d be tempted to reply: “Do you really not understand, or are you just saying that as a way of disagreeing?”

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  9. Anon Avatar
    Anon

    Isn’t the Socratic method largely one of demonstrating nonsense: leading the interlocutor to express a view that contradicts their stated view. But it’s productive because the goal isn’t to exclude them from the conversation but to make explicit the contradiction, forcing the choice between them.
    So it may have a very long history, but I think it’s constructive/honorable in its origin, and that you’re right that the contemporary version is usually very non-constructive.
    It’s originally: here’s where your view becomes contradictory, how can you fix it? But has become: your view is so contradictory that I’m not obliged to argue for the claim that your view is contradictory.

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  10. Gordon Avatar

    As a historian,I think context matters. I scanned the Hobbes part of Charles Pigden’s paper, and while I certainly agree that Hobbes was abusive to his opponents, it’s not like that wasn’t a standard argumentative trope in the 17c, on all sides. Descartes famously decides to leave the Aristotelian theory of motion in Latin because he thinks it’s incoherent. He also derisively treats Hobbes, Gassendi and Bourdin in his replies – including an effort to essentially call Bourdin’s religious superiors and get him disciplined. Many of Hobbes’s opponents thought his theory was nonsense and loudly said so, over and over.
    There’s an epistemic and a political issue there. The epistemic issue is that from, say, a Hobbesian point of view, the claims of the Aristotelians were nonsense, in a “from a totally different paradigm” sort of way. If you’re committed to the thesis that all motion is local (Hobbes is), then Aristotelian accounts of actualizing potentiality make no sense whatsoever to you because they rely on a completely incoherent metaphysics. Similarly, if you’re a committed materialist, then, well, Cartesian substance dualism does say things that make no sense to you. At the point you’re objecting to first principles, then accusations of “nonsense” might actually be correct, because theoretical claims have to be meaningful with regard to something. You have to start somewhere.
    The political point is that the early moderns didn’t make the same separation between epistemic and political issues that contemporary philosophy – particularly “analytic” – tends to. So for the Aristotelians, Hobbesian speech risked causing atheism in its auditors, and so needed to be attacked in the strongest terms possible. For Hobbes, Aristoelian speech was at the root of scholasticism, which ended up empowering the Papacy. And that, in turn, was at the root of any number of civil wars. So for Hobbes expunging this speech was necessary for peace.
    That doesn’t mean that accusations of nonsense are a good thing, and can’t be used by the powerful to dismiss critics of lower perceived social status. But I do think we should be careful in assessing them historically.

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  11. Enzo Rossi Avatar

    I’m sceptical of such fine-grained rules for the conduct of philosophical debate. Besides, perhaps I’m lucky, but I don’t think I’ve ever heard anyone say “This is nonsense, period”. Some argument is always given. Ok, maybe “nonsense” is not polite. One could say “inconsistent”, “equivocation”, “ambiguous”, “too vague”, as the case may be. But the subsequent argument should clarify which criticism applies anyway. Even if we ban the word “nonsense” people will find other ways to be just as aggressive. Tone and/or body language are enough, in fact. And they’re very hard to legislate against.
    Perhaps the OP’s concern is best presented as a matter of some people’s tendency to resort to the “nonsense” accusation too quickly. Presumably that’s because they can afford to. A graduate student wouldn’t be very wise if she accused–without substantiation–a well-known professor of talking nonsense. The opposite, sadly, isn’t quite true. So again, the issue is about structural inequalities within the profession, not about reprehensible personal conduct.

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  12. Daniel Brunson Avatar
    Daniel Brunson

    Another famous historical example:
    “That which has no existence cannot be destroyed — that which cannot be destroyed cannot require anything to preserve it from destruction. Natural rights is simple nonsense: natural and imprescriptible rights, rhetorical nonsense — nonsense upon stilts. But this rhetorical nonsense ends in the old strain of mischievous nonsense for immediately a list of these pretended natural rights is given, and those are so expressed as to present to view legal rights. And of these rights, whatever they are, there is not, it seems, any one of which any government can, upon any occasion whatever, abrogate the smallest particle.”
    -Jeremy Bentham, Anarchical Fallacies (1843)

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  13. Charles R Avatar
    Charles R

    On the flip side, sometimes people don’t like to see their ideas turned over and shown to be inconsistent and respond to that kind of thoughtful work with the objection that the other’s objection is thoughtless and not worth engaging.
    So, if we’re going to say that “This is nonsense!” is a poor/illicit move in the discussion, is it also a poor/illicit move to not recognize how someone reveals inconsistencies in our thinking? Acknowledge, maybe, that we’re not always the best judges of what we actually think and say?
    Maybe if we openly acknowledge from the start that we will be speaking nonsense and inconsistencies, we’ve deflated the accusation’s force and made that kind of accusation less tempting for others—much as how people openly adopt insulting terms to reclaim/redeem them, to wear the stigma proudly, so to speak.
    Or is humility or vulnerability too difficult to practice as philosophers? Even though, it seems, a great many are already being forced into those virtues through institutional vices.

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  14. John Protevi Avatar

    Thanks, Gordon, that’s a very nice comment. (Not to say the others aren’t; it’s just that I like the focus on paradigms and of course the political implications.)
    From long experience with the “nonsense” accusation (or its cousin, the “obscure” accusation) — every continental philosopher has been on the receiving end here I think — it seems to me that the problem comes from confusing quick comprehension of a thinker or school via familiarity with the terms / style / references / allusions, etc, with “sense” or “clarity” as an inherent property of the text or speaker. But that’s an attribution error as comprehension is an event occurring between reader and text or speaker and interlocutor, not a property of the text or speaker.
    The usual caveats about marginal cases apply; I’m not denying that some texts or speakers are confused, self-contradictory, etc. I am saying that many, many times in my experience I’ve had someone say “X is nonsense” (for values of X extending across just about every continental philosopher you could think of). Two things are implied here, it comes out in further discussion: 1) the basis for the charge is incomprehension from a quick skim of one or two pieces. 2) It’s now my job to give the equivalent of a two year UG module on the spot. There is often a further development: a passage plucked from its context is offered as proof of the nonsensical nature of X’s thought: “okay, then, explain this to me!”
    Let me put it this way: at this point in my life I’m much more able to read and understand the Phenomenology of Spirit than I am able to read and understand Naming and Necessity, but I think that’s more a function of the relation of me to the texts in question than it is a property of either text.
    Now here’s a question: is it still harder for me to read Difference and Repetition than it is for a comparably experienced analytic philosopher to read Naming and Necessity? If so, then maybe we can say something about the properties of texts after all. But I think we can only say that after running the kinds of experiments I’m talking about, and we’re still not to the point of saying that DR is “nonsense.”

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  15. anon junior Avatar
    anon junior

    I’ve seen the ‘nonsense’ objection every now and then, enough times that I now parse it as follows:
    S calling R’s utterance U ‘nonsense’ means only that:
    (a) S does not agree with U
    (b) S believes S to be in a position of relative power over R
    Per this analysis, the fact that S calls U ‘nonsense’ tells us nothing about the content or value of U. It does not even tell us about S’s reasons (if any) for rejecting U. It tells us only about (perceived) social position.
    I’ve never seen a low-status person respond to a high-status person with the ‘nonsense’ objection.

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  16. Charles Pigden Avatar

    Michael I was careful to say that Wittgenstein – at least the later Wittgenstein – has a vague set of criteria for what constitutes nonsense not a theory. That of course makes his polemical practices all the more dishonest and authoritarian. A theory can be discussed and refuted which is what eventually happened to verificationism and indeed to the theory developed in the Tractatus that meaningful propositions are truth functions of elementary propositions. Not so a set criteria unbacked by a theory.
    Also I think one needs to distinguish between theories or criteria designed to rule out what their inventors don’t like as literally meaningless, and everyday accusations of inconsistency, vagueness and equivocation. An inconsistent statement is not meaningless. After all its negation is automatically true. And the problem with equivocal statements or is not that they have NO meaning but that they have too many and that their proprietors skip gaily from one to another as the need arises.

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  17. john Avatar
    john

    Schopenhauer’s take on this when looking at Hegel:
    “Further, if I were to say that this summus philosophus of the Danish Academy scribbled nonsense quite unlike any mortal before him, so that whoever could read his most eulogized work, the so-called Phenomenology of the Mind, without feeling as if he were in a madhouse, would qualify as an inmate for Bedlam, I should be no less right. But then I should be giving the Danish Academy the loophole of saying that the exalted teachings of that wisdom were not accessible to inferior intellects like mine, and that what seemed to me nonsense was an unfathomable profundity of wisdom. In that case I must naturally look for a firmer handle that cannot slip from my grasp, and must then drive the opponent into a corner from which there is no escape by the back door”…On the basis of morality – p.16 preface from 1st ed- Hackett 1995 ed

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  18. Michael Kremer Avatar
    Michael Kremer

    Charles, I have argued in print, and will reassert here: when there are “too many meanings” and language users skip between them, that is effectively for there to be no determinate meaning at all. Especially when the skipping goes unnoticed even by the language users, who take themselves to be using a word with one fixed meaning.
    As for Wittgenstein, I do not think he employs even a vague set of criteria designed to rule out what he doesn’t like. What he does is to use a series of methods for trying to bring his interlocutor to see the meaninglessness of his or her words, when the use of those words leads to seemingly intractable problems. Insofar as these methods do not persuade the interlocutor (lead the fly out of the fly-bottle), they are not successful by Wittgenstein’s own lights, and more work is needed. This may require repeatedly returning to the same issues, looking at things from a variety of perspectives, etc. (“criss-cross in every direction.”) Hence the length of the rule-following discussion, for example. I just don’t see how anyone can read, say, the Investigations at all seriously and come away thinking that Wittgenstein is applying some vague set of criteria to rule things out as meaningless. You can read individual remarks that way but only if you ignore the fact that the topic is typically not just dropped with a simple proclamation of “meaningless” but inevitably comes back again in a new form.

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  19. Catarina Dutilh Novaes Avatar

    Hi all, thanks for all the interesting comments. I think most of them have deepened the discussion I presented in the OP, but basically I don’t disagree strongly with anyone here… As some people have pointed out, there’s nothing wrong with showing to someone that their views are nonsensical — this is the very idea of Socratic elenchus, and in a sense also an aspect of Wittgenstein’s conception of philosophy as therapy. The point was simply to question ‘nonsense’ objections that are not accompanied by this process of exposure. Eric Schliesser provides some vivid examples here:
    http://www.newappsblog.com/2012/07/on-disciplinary-norms.html

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  20. Dan Hicks Avatar

    John Maynard Keynes describes Moore as routinely arguing in exactly this way, and everyone in the Bloomsbury group being quite impressed by him for it. I think the essay I’m remembering is “My Early Beliefs,” chapter 39 in volume 10 of Keynes’ Collected Writings.

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  21. Jon Cogburn Avatar

    Oh thanks, I have to check that out.
    In the closing chapters of After Virtue, Macintyre does a hilarious (and almost certainly unfair) send up of how moral intuitionism worked with the Bloomsbury group and the Cambridge Apostles. If I remember right, Macintyre claimed that Moore was such a charismatic figure that people would unconsciously copy the way he held his chin and stared into infinity before pronouncing on some normative issue. Since moral intuitionism was accepted, you couldn’t dispute the judgment. So whoever copied Moore better won the argument.

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  22. Charles Pigden Avatar

    To Michael,
    Like Wittgenstein himself, you have a wonderful way of insulating yourself from refutation. I say Wittgenstein employs implicit criteria for what is and is not meaningful, a claim I could back up by quoting chapter and verse. You say that he often says things which suggest this, but that if we look at the Investigations as a whole we see that this is not so. I recommend this hermeneutical tactic to any interpreter whose interpretation might be falsified by inconvenient quotes.
    My real point however is that unless Wittgenstein has such a set of criteria and unless they are correct his therapeutic procedures are simply a set of rhetorical tricks designed to impose a restricted Oldspeak in which the ideas that Wittgenstein disapproves of cannot be expressed. Your defense make him far less honest and much more of an authoritarian than his positivist contemporaries who at least had a theory to back their prohibitions.
    According to you, Wittgenstein presumes to tell his interlocutors what is and is not meaningful even though
    1) he does not have a theory about what makes utterances meaningful or otherwise (because he does not have ANY theories)
    and
    2) he has no criteria (not even vague ones) to determine whether something is meaningful or not.
    If there is no theory or criterion for what is and is not meaningful then it seems to me we have two possibilities with respect to Wittgenstein’s therapeutic procedures.
    Possibility A) The procedures ‘succeed’. The interlocutor comes to accept after a great deal of brow-beating and great man posing (plus a few evasive maneuvers of the kind that Wittgenstein tried unsuccessfully on Turing) that Wittgenstein is right and that some of his words are not genuinely meaningful or are not being used in a meaningful way. The philosophical problems generated by the relevant concepts (or pseudo-concepts) disappear FOR HIM. Perhaps he feels better and experiences that ‘fly out of the fly-bottle feeling’. or perhaps he feels that he has been cut off from lush fields of thought and that things he once considered important and interesting have vanished right into the air. Whatever. The problem is that unless Wittgenstein is RIGHT about what is and is not meaningful, the interlocutor will be living in a fool’s paradise or a fool’s hell. If you choose not to use a certain set of concepts, the problems generated by those concepts won’t be visible to you. But the problems won’t have been solved or dissolved – you will simply have deprived yourself of the wherewithal to perceive them. (As Russell might have put it, absent a criterion of meaning that is in fact correct, Wittgenstein’s dissolutions morph into March Hare solutions ‘I am tired of this – let’s change the subject.’ Except, of course, that we have a bullying March Hare who insists that nobody should talk about the topics that he is tired of.) Wittgenstein’s claim, of course, is that he is only ‘reminding’ his therapeutic clients of what they already in some sense know. (‘ The work of the philosopher consists in assembling reminders for a particular purpose’) But the work of Elizabeth Loftus provides ample evidence that it is possible to manufacture false memories in a therapeutic context by techniques not dissimilar to the ones that Wittgenstein employed. Thus the feeling of recognition that some of Wittgenstein’s clients may have felt could be completely illusory. The point is, however, that Wittgenstein’s techniques can only provide a GENUINE dissolution of a philosophical problem if the concepts that generate the problem really ARE pseudo-concepts. For THAT to be the case he must either have a theory of meaning which is true or a set of criteria which are correct. (Moreover the claim that his implicit criteria ARE correct is, of course, a theoretical claim.) Moral: without, at the very least, a criterion of meaning which is CORRECT Wittgenstein’s dissolutions are pseudo-dissolutions.
    Possibility B) The procedure fails. Despite Wittgenstein’s best efforts, his interlocutor refuses to concede that the words that he uses to state the philosophical problems that interest him are not being used in a meaningful way. She goes away with her problems intact. Unless Wittgenstein has a set of criteria that are fact CORRECT, in what sense is the interlocutor in error? None whatsoever. Moral. Whether Wittgenstein’s procedures ‘succeed’ or fail they will not have achieved anything of philosophical significance unless Wittgenstein has genuinely got the goods on what is and is not meaningful. And it is hard to see how that can be the case unless he has implicit criteria that are, in fact, the correct ones.
    Suppose then that he has such a set of criteria. Then he is caught by my argument. For his criteria are essentially revisionary. There are things people are inclined to say and take to be meaningful which are in his view meaningless. Thus his criteria generate ‘predictions’ about what is and is not meaningful which are falsified by the only evidence we have – our intuitions about what does and does not make sense.
    Conclusion. Unless Wittgenstein has a set of criteria – and a set of criteria which are correct – his therapeutic procedures may make some people happier but they can’t provide genuine dissolutions of philosophical problems. But if he DOES have such criteria, then they are prima facie false, since they portray what is prima facie meaningful as if it were meaningless.
    Of course if Wittgenstein were prepared to THEORIZE this would not be a decisive objection. As I say in my paper ‘If, in the course of our enquiries we develop a really fruitful conception of meaning – one that helps to solve pressing problems in psychology or the social sciences for instance – then we might have to give up the folk-category of the meaningful and go with the new theory-generated taxonomy. But such a revisionist theory would have to be very good – much better, I should say, than anything that Dummett, Hume, Wittgenstein or anyone else has managed to come up with.’ But the construction of such a theory is not an avenue of salvation that is open to Wittgenstein if he is the dedicated anti-theorist that you make him out to be.

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  23. Catarina Dutilh Novaes Avatar

    Thanks for this! I already thought that much of what is wrong with current philosophy is to be traced back to Moore (and Marcus Arvan recently had a post up saying the same thing); this is just another confirmation of it…

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  24. Mauricio Suárez Avatar

    I think you’re right about this one Catarina – and thank you for raising it. One of my first debates in print was a forced one, which I had to enter in as a PhD student in order to remain in the profession (and in the UK – luckily I no longer need to engage in any forced debates). I still vividly remember a senior lecturer at the time claiming at a talk in one of the first PSA conferences I attended that “no one in their right mind would hold them” in reference to what he described as my views. You may imagine the impact this had at the time … Yes, I agree that this type of objection is unethical when used to push someone away from their chosen research project – as it often is.

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  25. Kenny Pearce Avatar

    Another important historical antecedent is John Toland’s Christianity Not Mysterious. Toland starts from a particular theory of mind and language (Locke’s) and argues from that theory that sentences purporting to express ‘religious mysteries’ cannot possibly express anything, i.e., are nonsense. Now this is, I think, quite different from the tactic criticized here. This is a way of arguing against a view, not a way of dismissing it without argument. Among early analytic philosophers, I think some did the Toland thing and others the dismissive thing. Of course, the Toland-style argument is prone to charges of question-begging, but it’s still a real argument, not a cheap dismissal.

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