Let me begin with two of what I think of as an extremely simple, indeed grossly over-simplified, truism. Wittgenstein told us that meaning is use. He also told us that meaning should not be understood as primarily consisting in the relationship that holds between a name and its bearer. My truism is this: Wittgenstein’s two dicta are logically independent. It might be that meaning is use: that is, it might be that ultimately anything I mean has to be explicated in terms of something I use it for.  For instance, it might be that every time I utter ‘cat’, I am doing something cat-related. It may nonetheless be true that the best way to understand the word ‘cat’ is as naming the concept CAT. Conversely, it may be that my utterances of ‘cat’ have to be understood in complex, situationally variable ways, so that the word cannot be explicated as naming anything. Nonetheless, it may be true that meaning is independent of use. In short, one of these dicta is about the communicative and pragmatic aspects of language, and the other about semantics, and though closely related in Wittgenstein’s thought, they are logically independent and they have to be argued for separately.

In a similar vein, the meaning-is-use claim is logically independent of Wittgenstein’s no-inner-mentality ideology, unless you follow a stolidly behaviourist line of thought. You might think that understanding the meaning of ‘cat’ is a matter of behaving in a certain way with regard to cats. But this has little to do with whether or not you change your inner state when you come to understand ‘cat’.


Now, of course, Wittgenstein had a bridge between the two propositions: meaning-as-use and no-inner-mentality. That bridge was the Private Language Argument. Or so I surmise. Nonetheless, it comes as a bit of shock when he completely merges the two propositions that I have just separated:

We think there must be something going on in one's mind for one to understand the word 'plant'. We are inclined to say that what we mean by one's understanding the word is a process in the mind. … There is away out of the difficulty of explaining what understanding is if we take 'understanding a word' to mean, roughly, being able to use it. The point of this explanation is to replace 'understanding a word' by 'being able to use a word', which is not so easily thought of as denoting an [inner] activity. 

Apparently, according to him, there is nothing going on in one’s mind when one comes to understand a word. And one comes to see this by taking it on board that coming to understand a word is simply being able to understand this.

Of course, any sensible philosopher ought to reject the second proposition. Coming to understand a word does indeed entail being able to use it. But being able to use it entails a dispositional change, and most understandings, any disposition has a categorical (i.e., non-dispositional) basis. For instance, when you understand ‘plant’, you are disposed to act in certain ways: you will use the word differently from a person who does not understand it. It follows that when you come to understand it, you change your disposition. But you cannot change dispositionally, if you don’t change categorically. Such a categorical change must be a mental change—what else could it be? And if you are a physicalist, the locus of such change must be the brain. Wittgenstein spoke of changes in the mind; neo-Wittgensteinians extend that to the body/brain.

If you don’t think that dispositions have a categorical basis—and some philosophers of physics and metaphysicians don’t—an argument is required. Wittgenstein offers none. And yet, the principle is very standard. Russell uses the dispositions-have-a-categorical-basis proposition in Analysis of Mind. I suppose one could read the Philosophical Investigations as a sustained attack on the principle. But it certainly is not presented that way. To me, it comes across as a work that simply ignores it.

I had these thoughts upon receiving some helpful correspondence from Priscilla Hill in response to my review of Daniel Hutto and Erik Myin’s combative anti-mental-content tract, Radicalizing Enactivism. Hill made me aware of a conference presentation by Danièle Moyal-Sharrock that convincingly links H&M’s book to Wittgenstein—I only suspected the connection before reading her piece.

Moyal-Sharrock is a committed Wittgensteinian, but even so I was amazed by the audacity of her position:

Now, it might be objected, Wittgenstein can say what he likes; but where's the evidence? Well, it is scientists, not philosophers that base their claims on evidence. What philosophers do is work on more perspicuous conceptual presentations of how things are. And what Wittgenstein has done is show that we cannot make conceptual sense of basic certainties that start off as propositions, and engrams that work like people. But now let me return the question and ask scientists: where is your evidence? There is none. There has never been found the shadow of anything representational or encoded in the brain. So why insist we go micro (or subpersonal) in our accounts of the mind when even science is unable to demonstrate that that's the way to go?

There is a hint here of the familiar (and completely groundless) accusation that when psychologists speak of memory traces (or engrams) they ascribe remembering to the brain, not the subject. I’ll just put that aside and stipulate that persons remember, but that they do so by using engrams.

It astounds me that somebody can claim that no evidence exists of representations in the brain. Just to give a few examples: the (highly successful) post-behaviourist program of neuroscientists such as Eric Kandel was precisely to find the neural basis of memory—simple episodic declarative memory (memory that something occurred) falls under this rubric. The entire single-cell recording program of scientists such as Barlow in Cambridge, Hubel and Wiesel in the other Cambridge was devoted to finding the neural basis of perception. More recently, scientists have made large discoveries concerning the neural basis of face recognition. No evidence?

(For more on Hutto and Myin, see my review.)

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32 responses to “Wittgenstein and Enactivism”

  1. Mark Lance Avatar

    Mohan, for what it is worth, I don’t think Wittgenstein thought that meaning was use. I’ve argued this in print. He doesn’t, for example, say so, and frequently says things that contradict it. It is much closer to say that he thought meaning was proper use.
    I also don’t think he says there is no inner mentality in the sense of nothing going on in one’s mind when one understands a word. He thinks that one cannot analyze meaning or proper word usage in terms of a conceptually prior notion of thought, but that is not to say that the latter doesn’t exist.
    Of course these are big empirical questions, but I just wanted to stake out the disputability of the interpretations being offered of what LW said.

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  2. Robert Avatar

    Mohan, thanks for the post, good to see that others are puzzled too by this split in anti-representationalists who try to base their claims on some interpretation of Wittgenstein’s PI and representationalist who try to argue from scientific evidence for it (which are themselves split in several camps like Fodor’s internalist realists or Tye’s externalist representationalists).
    Now my somewhat crude Wittgenstein interpretation concerning representations and private language:
    Cognitive scientists say they found a representation of some mental process in the brain, which is what Kandel’s work on memory suggests (I call it S-representation for scientific). By any scientific standards, memory (without considering the usual objections like the subject/brain terminology which you referred to) won’t qualify any longer as object of some private language – if it’s a concept of science it can’t be part of a (solely) private language. Memory understood as S-representation doesn’t fall prey to Wittgensteinian arguments; I rather think that Wittgenstein’s arguments are directed towards what I call “qualitative representationalism” (that’s my “Chalmerian” reading – not Wittgenstein), i.e. the idea that mental content fundamentally rest on necessarily private representations with phenomenal feel (that eventually is what makes them private, I thus call them P-representations). If you, however, confuse S-representations with P-representations you will run into trouble (which is what I take Wittgensteinians to argue against).

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  3. D.J. Hendricks Avatar
    D.J. Hendricks

    Where does Wittgenstein say either: “meaning is use” OR “there is nothing going on in one’s mind when one comes to understand a word”?
    I’ll save you some trouble and tell you the answer: he does not. The first is a slogan which has been incorrectly attributed to Wittgenstein by those who wish to gloss over his philosophy rather than taking the time or trouble to think for themselves about what he tried to show us. If you were familiar with what he did say in the Preface of the Philosophical Investigations, you would know that such sloganeering tactics are directly contrary to Wittgenstein’s approach. In the second case, the passage you cited clearly does not support the claim you attribute to Wittgenstein. Furthermore, in attributing such an idea to Wittgenstein, you seem to have misunderstood completely the beetle-in-the-box example (see PI 293).
    I’m unfamiliar with the three authors you’ve cited, so I cannot speak to their work. However, so far as this contribution is concerned, it astounds ME that somebody can so audaciously attack the work of anyone else when he has evidently not troubled himself with reading it.

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  4. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    I am no Wittgenstein scholar, and I apologize if I have him wrong. But in the passage that I quoted, he does seem to say that understanding a word is being able to use it, which is “not so easily understood as an inner activity.” I would certainly stick to my point that coming to understand a word is, by this dictum, a new ability, and that (not contesting this) a new ability does require a categorical change.
    Do you disagree about my reading of the passage? Or about my criticism of the idea I find in it (rightly or wrongly)?

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  5. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    That’s an interesting take, Robert. I think it’s more or less compatible with mine. I remarked that Wittgenstein said there was nothing going on in the mind, and that the anti-representationalists had extended this to the brain. But the argument he gives in the (admittedly extremely brief) passage that I quoted doesn’t seem to distinguish the two. It seems just to say that understanding a word is not an inner event. Let’s say that we agree with that. It doesn’t follow immediately that there is no inner event that explains it. By brushing this possibility away, Wittgenstein also implicitly dismisses the need to explain the changed ability that coming to understand a word consists in.

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  6. Mark Lance Avatar

    In the passage you quote, LW is saying that we can think of understanding a word as roughly being able to use it (properly). (These caveats of “roughly” are important. LW is skeptical of theory in all these contexts.) But saying this is not saying that meaning is use. Nor is he denying that there is something that happens in the mind when we understand. He rejects the claim that “what we mean by one’s understanding the word is a process in the mind” or thinking ‘understanding a word’ as denoting a process in the mind.
    But neither of these imply that “there is nothing going on in one’s mind when one comes to understand a word.”
    To answer for myself your later question to D.J. – I do agree with your criticism of the ideas you attribute to LW.

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  7. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    Mark, I like your line on this. I myself think that understanding a word should indeed be analysed as a mental attitude, but this is certainly contestable. But with regard to Wittgenstein, you say that he doesn’t deny that thoughts exist, and by implication you say that thoughts are distinct from grasping the meaning of a word. That leaves it open whether a thought explains grasp of meaning. In the passage I quoted he seems to deny that any such explanation is necessary or admissible. Do you think that he thought a causal/explanatory link exists?

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  8. Robert Avatar

    Hi Mohan, what I disagree with is the attribution of the belief to Wittgenstein that there is ‘nothing going on in the mind.’ (I am no Wittgenstein scholar, but I have the impression that he is somehow agnostic here – the box with the beetle might be empty after all. This again is contra the behaviorist readers of Wittgenstein who are pretty confident it is.).
    However, if something is going on in the mind which is private, it’s senseless to take it as instance of some language. There is no “private Mentalese.” But what science is doing is not discovering some private representation (P-representation) but scientific, objective representations in the brain (S-representations as I called them). But sometimes they claim that these exhaust everything there is and that’s the point where the Wittgensteinians may (justifiably) object.
    So I think it is not really a contradiction to have empirically found, scientific representations and to argue against a private (mental) language made. One just shouldn’t confuse those. Can’t comment on the claim that “scientists have no evidence…” because I don’t really know what it is about. Btw, I liked your review of H&M’s book!

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  9. Mark Lance Avatar

    I think that is a hard interpretive question. He is definitely rejecting the idea that we can fully explain what meaning is by virtue of some independent notion of what is going on in the mind. And part of that is that he thinks that we can only understand what is going on in the mind at least partly in terms of public performances. That doesn’t, of course, imply that there is no causal link or even that there is no way in which public meaning can be explained by reference to thought. (He is pretty plural and contextual about explanation. After a long section denouncing the idea that meaning is constituted by reference, he says, roughly, but of course sometimes we explain a word by pointing to its bearer. In general I think the question of how our thinking is tied up with our public words and meaning was not something that was central to his concerns. Thinking and speaking are, for LW – or so I read him – very different things, much more different than people generally take them to be. But he was more interested in the talking than the thinking in the end.
    But aside from some specific issues that I’ve looked into, I’m really not a Wittgenstein scholar. I read a bunch of his work and mined it for useful ideas, but for the most part I should shut up here and let real experts talk about what his overall view is.

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  10. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    OK, first, “meaning is use” is a phrase that is sometimes used as a convenient shorthand for Wittgenstein’s view (Wittgenstein does this himself – see for example §138 of the PI). Unfortunately it is also sometimes used as a slogan denoting a supposed theory. But Wittgenstein was at pains to put forward no theory of meaning in the PI. Instead, “meaning is use” is best seen as a truncated summary of a description of what we do when we explain the meaning of a word – ie, we explain how it is used. This should be clear from what Wittgenstein actually says in the PI (§43): “For a large class of cases – though not all – this word can be explained in this way: the meaning of a word is its use in the language”. To repeat: not a theory of meaning. A description of the explanation of meaning.
    Next, it’s simply not the case that Wittgenstein thought there was nothing going on in our minds when we understand something. Such a claim would be bizarre to say the least. Rather, he thought it was a mistake to identify inner experiences or processes (including physical processes) as the defining characteristic of understanding. That, he claimed, is not how we use the word “understand”. So although there are, of course, various characteristic experiences of understanding they do not represent the definitive criteria for correctly using the word. And the same goes for hypothetical states and dispositions, whether mental or encoded in the brain.
    I hope this goes at least some way to clearing things up.

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  11. musicalcolin Avatar
    musicalcolin

    Hi Mohan,
    I’m curious about your claim that single cell-recordings offer evidence for the existence of representations. It seems to me that there is a fairly large inferential step between demonstrating that some cells in V1 respond to specifically angled edges, and demonstrating that these edges figure as such in our perception. It does not follow from the fact that a recording is of a single cell, that we can infer that the registration from the cell is carried over unchanged into any final product. The ubiquity of gestalt/form perception, in which the structure is salient, suggests in fact that edges are not the minimal component of vision.

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  12. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    Oops! Apologies – I typed the quote from §43 wrongly. Proper version:
    For a large class of cases of the employment of the word “meaning” – though not for all – this word can be explained in this way: the meaning of a word is its use in the language.
    Apologies again.

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  13. Mark Lance Avatar
    Mark Lance

    Philip, it is even less. It is one way we can explain meaning in some contexts. Right after the quote in 43 is where he says that we can als sometimes explain by pointing to the referent. But definitely there is no theory of meaning here.

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  14. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    That’s true, Mark, but in pointing to the bearer we are not pointing to the word’s meaning. Rather, we are providing a rule for the use of the word: “Use this word as the name of this person/object”. It’s a specialised version of ostensive definition. However, as the first para of §43 suggests, not all examples of explaining meaning are about the use of a word (eg, we sometimes explain the literal meaning of a foreign word precisely to distinguish that from the way it’s used).
    Anyway, I’m splitting hairs here. I agree with your general point.

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  15. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    musicalcolin@11: I didn’t mean to say that registration from any cell in V1 is carried over into perception-as-such. Cells in V1 respond, as you say, to very simple elements of a retinal image, elements of which we are unaware in the “final product”—i.e., conscious perception. My claim is rather that the single-cell recordings are evidence that they represent something. Later in the process, representations of more complex things are generated as a computational and mathematical function of these earlier ones. The representations of more complex things are, as you say, imbued by gestalt.
    The single-cell recording program is a physicalist counterpart of traditional psychophysics. The tradition correlated stimulus and behavioural response, including verbal report in the case of humans. Barlow and his crew correlated stimulus and neural response. Just as traditional psychophysics was an inquiry into how we represent quality fields, single-cell recordings show how our neurons contribute to this ultimate product.

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  16. Tristan Haze Avatar

    Interesting post! Regarding this, which has been controversial in the above comments already:
    ‘Apparently, according to him, there is nothing going on in one’s mind when one comes to understand a word’
    My take on this is: no, he’s just at pains to say that anything going on in one’s mind at the time of coming to understand a word would not be the understanding itself. So even if there is some mental process which occurs when and only when someone understands some word, that process would not itself be the understanding. (There are many passages in Wittgenstein with this kind of ‘Even if’ clause. It’s one of his moves you get to learn and recognize.) And Wittgesntein would call this a grammatical point.

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  17. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    Philip, I am not entirely sure what the difference is between explaining a word and giving its meaning. But let’s just say that W is a word that has to be explained by how it is used. And let me concede for the purposes of this argument that there is no inner process or brain state that constitutes understanding.
    My point, which is compatible with the concessions made above, is that there still could be a brain state (or inner process) that causes the use of W.

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  18. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    Hi Mohan,
    Yes, it will be possible to study the brain to see what happens when someone understands a word, uses it, etc (indeed this study is already well underway). And that may lead to the identification of neural states/processes that correlate reliably with instances of understanding and/or use. Wittgenstein’s arguments don’t rule out any of that. But the important thing to realise from his point of view is that the states/processes so discovered wouldn’t themselves be “understanding” or “use”. They would be part of the physical underpinning of those phenomena. (This is Tristan’s point in the post above yours.)
    It is remarkably easy to forget this point and announce something like “science has discovered what understanding is”. For Wittgenstein this cannot be done because the word “understanding” is not used as the name of any kind of thing. There is nothing to discover in that sense.

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  19. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    Tristan, one could argue whether grasping a word is a mental state or, alternatively, an ability to use it a certain way. The Fodor-Peacocke debate is about just this. I tend to side with Fodor: it's a mental state. But even if you take it to be an ability, you still have to allow that there's an underlying state that is the causal basis of the ability. Does W agree? I don't see a direct answer on this thread, but there are certainly Wittgensteinians who wouldn't. 

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  20. sam Avatar
    sam

    “Apparently, according to him, there is nothing going on in one’s mind when one comes to understand a word.”
    Just to amplify what Tristan and Philip said above. It’s quite possible, a matter contingent fact, that given, say, three people, A, B, and C, each could have a different “mental process” (“mental representation”) whenever they use the word ‘cat’ correctly in a sentence. Let’s try and make this concrete. Suppose A, B, and C each wear a small TV screen that displays, in a sequence of colors, the mental process each “has” (“undergoes”, “enjoys”) whenever they use the word ‘cat’ correctly in a sentence. A, B, and C would then display different color sequences when using the word ‘cat’. But because the sequences are different, we can’t point to each (or any) of them as the criterion of A, B, or C’s understanding the word ‘cat’. The point of a criterion is, roughly, that it does not vary. And what does not vary here is A, B, and C’s use of the word ‘cat’ correctly. It’s not that using the word correctly is evidence of some mental process called “understanding” — it is the understanding. It is what we call, “understanding the word ‘cat’.”

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  21. Michael Kremer Avatar
    Michael Kremer

    Mohan: changing the subject slightly — when you say “Russell uses the dispositions-have-a-categorical-basis proposition in Analysis of Mind.” — did you mean “Analysis of Matter”? (That’s where I recall people like Chalmers saying that this is in Russell, in an argument concerning the merely dispositional character of what we know of elementary particles.) If you did mean “Analysis of Mind”, I’d be interested in where you’re seeing that (I am really just being lazy here)…

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  22. musicalcolin Avatar
    musicalcolin

    Mohan, thanks for your response. I’m not so sure that I agree with you that single-cell recording is like psycho-physics. The best psycho-physics looks for correlations between stimulus and response, and is neutral with regard to underlying mechanisms, which is not to say that psychophysicists didn’t carry their own assumptions with regards to the connection between their lab tests and perception in the wild. Single-cell recordings are also neutral with regards to the connection between cell response and perception. All that is measured is the neurophysiological response. Building the connection between the neurophysiology and the psychology is rife with major assumptions, for example, that neural processes are localizable such that one can say that a particular psychological process is carried out in this part of the brain (or even this cell). Given the vast-interconnected structure of the brain, this is a big assumption (the same function could be carried out elsewhere or even in multiple places or in a distributed network etc). Second, that psychological processes themselves are isolable/modular. Given the influence of memory and attention on perception (cognitive penetrability), this also looks like a contentious assumption.
    So, I guess I’m not sure how to understand your claim that we have evidence for representations. It seems like our evidence depends on taking on philosophical assumptions about how the brain works and how the mind works. And presumably any defender of enactivism would reject both.

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  23. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    Mohan,
    A couple of things on this.
    First, Wittgenstein argues that understanding is not a mental state. And by that he means that the criteria we use when talking of understanding are not those that apply to mental states. “Being anxious” is a mental state; understanding a word is not. A mental state has a genuine duration. It can be interrupted and then resume again. It has degrees of intensity, and so on. None of that applies to understanding a word. I can feel anxious all morning, but I don’t understand the word “cat” all morning. I can feel less anxious or more anxious, but I don’t understand the word “cat” more intensely now than I did this morning (I might understand it better – but that’s a reference to my improved ability to use it).
    However, you might mean something different by “mental state” – namely: a state of the structure of the mind (which is presumably then to be reduced to a state of the brain). Again, Wittgenstein thinks this idea doesn’t match our established criteria for understanding. Indeed, it brings in a new criterion: establishing the state of the mechanism. But now, what if these two criteria (performance and the state of the mechanism) clash? If the mechanism was in the appropriate state would we say someone understood a word even when he repeatedly used it incorrectly? Clearly, I think, we wouldn’t.
    Here you might object that this divergence of criteria wouldn’t happen because you’d only call a state of the mechanism “understanding” if it always and only occurred when someone really did understand (and so not, for example, when he used a word correctly by accident or by a fluke). But now you’re going in a circle. You’re supposed to be discovering what understanding is but you’re establishing that by using what you already know it to be. At best, you’re going to end up with an ingenious new way of establishing what we can already find out by other means.
    Don’t get me wrong: if science can establish the causal underpinning of understanding that will be a tremendous achievement. But it won’t tell us what understanding is. We already know that – in fact, most five year-old children already know it.
    Finally, it’s worth noting that Wittgenstein considers understanding to be akin to having an ability. By that he means that the concept of ability better captures certain aspects of understanding – in particular, the connection between understanding something and mastering a technique.

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  24. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    sam@20: Wittgenstein may very well had this kind of example in mind as at least a part of his motivation for denying that understanding a concept is a mental state. I won’t get deeply into it here, but your argument amounts to saying that since the phenomenal character of mental states does not determine their content. (Maybe this is not the way you would prefer to put it.) A lot of people (e.g, David Chalmers) would agree with you about this; they think that content supervenes on phenomenal character. I don’t agree. I have argued that the “color sequences” you describe cloak a sameness of representational content. (If you are a Wittgensteinian, you’d probably scoff at this, but my point is that the conclusion you draw from your example is not forced.)

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  25. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    Hi Michael@21, I was precisely relying on the secondary literature that you mention. If I get the time in the next couple of days—too preoccupied at having fun at this end!—I’ll try and find some likely passages.

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  26. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    musicalcolin@22: My claim is this: just as psychophysics investigates correlations between objective stimuli and response, single-cell neurophysiology (and more generally perceptual neurophysiology) investigates correlations between objective stimuli and brain activity. To the extent that psychophysics can tell us (for instance) that we mentally represent colour as a three-dimensional quality space, so also single-cell recordings can tell us (for instance) how the frog’s brain represents motion.
    Of course, there are all sorts of methodological disputes around all of this: it wouldn’t be particularly interesting if there weren’t. And enactivists can reject the purported significance of single cell recordings: they are remarkably apt to reject all sorts of things. My objection in the original post is to the remarkably cavalier claim contained in the following quote:

    But now let me return the question and ask scientists: where is your evidence? There is none. There has never been found the shadow of anything representational or encoded in the brain.

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  27. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    Sorry – should’ve pointed out: my previous post more or less elaborates on what Sam says above.

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  28. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    Philip@23: We are not all that far apart in our understanding of the dialectic, but we probably disagree about the main issue.
    We agree that with regard to understanding a word (or grasping a concept), the ability to use that word/concept (correctly) is different from the mental (or brain) state that underlies this ability.
    We disagree about which of the aforementioned items (i.e., the underlying mental state or the ability) is constitutive of understanding. You think it’s the ability; I think it’s being in the mental state. (Note: The human subject understands in virtue of being in a mental state. I am not personalizing the brain.)
    This disagreement closely parallels the long-running debate between Fodor (whose position I am more or less supporting) and Peacocke (whose position resembles yours). This is an interesting dispute, unlike the rhetoric quoted in my original post, and critiqued in my review of Hutto and Myin linked above.

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  29. Philip Cartwright Avatar

    Mohan,
    Not so fast, Mr Bond! 🙂
    As I mentioned at the end of @23, understanding is akin to having an ability, but that does not mean that understanding simply is having an ability. It’s similar in some ways, different in others. Much depends on what facet of understanding you want to emphasise by comparing the two – that is, it depends on the context in which the issue arises.
    So we’re likely to have just as much trouble with the concept “ability” as we’ve already had with “understand”. For, from a Wittgensteinian point of view it is one thing to say “my calculator has the ability to find the square of any number” and quite another to say “Jones has the ability to… [etc]”. That is, in many cases the criteria for ascribing ability work differently when applied to people as opposed to machines. Do not take it for granted that having an ability is a nice, clear-cut concept. Quite the opposite!
    Furthermore, although performance is undoubtedly a key characteristic of understanding, it is not by itself constitutive of understanding. I am not suggesting a Behaviourist account here. For whether a particular performance counts as correct and whether it further warrants the use of the word “understanding” in relation to it depends on the particular circumstances in which the performance takes place. These circumstances can range from detailed things such as facial expressions and gestures right up to very general facts about the person involved (eg, their background, education, etc). They can also include not only what happens at the time or prior to the performance, but also what happens after it. Which circumstances are relevant? That depends on the particular case in hand.
    All this is a bit bewildering, I know, so I’ll try to summarise. You cannot rip the question “Does she understand?” out of the context in which it is asked – as if all there was to it was a particular arrangement of neurons or a series of bodily movements. Neither the question nor the answer (“Yes, she understands”) make sense outside of that context.
    Now, how sure are you that all that can be located in a neural network?
    btw, you gave me some reading to do, so I’ll return the favour. Forget the private language argument; Wittgenstein actually has a full discussion of the concept of understanding prior to that. The section you should read is §§138-242 of the Philosophical Investigations.

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  30. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    I’ll do your reading (it’s been years), and also (after this) give you the last word. You add the complication that understanding is context relative. That’s fine. All that it means is that in different contexts, different dispositions need to be explained. So instead of a brain state underlying a single encompassing ability, you have many brain states underlying a variety of dispositions.

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  31. musicalcolin Avatar
    musicalcolin

    Hi Mohan, thanks again for the response. I understand better what you’re saying now. I agree that Moyal-Sharrock is being awfully cavalier in that quotation, and not just about representations, but about philosophy itself. I would certainly prefer a philosophy that was connected to scientific evidence than a philosophy that wasn’t. If we are studying perception, isn’t the evidence of how we perceive kind of important? On the other hand, I think that she’s correct that the existence or non-existence of representations depends on a priori claims, but if those a priori claims don’t have empirical support, then I don’t know what are we even talking about. Certainly it seems incumbent on the enactivist to find good reasons to challenge the neuron doctrine rather than just denying the existence of any evidence for representations tout court.
    Enactivists weren’t always hell bent on rejecting all sorts of things. I think that it’s not a surprise that the main philosophical sources for enactivism come from Europe from 1920-1940, the heyday of Gestalt psychology. The Gestalt psychologists defended direct perception, physiognomic perception (the forerunner to Gibson’s affordances), the interconnection between perception and action, etc. So there was a time in which enactivism (or something similar) was trending in psychology.
    Anyways, I look forward to reading your review of Radicalizing Enactivism.

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  32. Mohan Matthen Avatar

    Thanks musicalcolin.
    I have been puzzling over the relationship between Gibson’s affordances and enactivism, but haven’t come to any conclusion yet. Since I don’t have anything to say about this, let me just remark that in my book, I introduced a notion of an epistemic affordance. Let’s say I taste a red mango and find it sweet. Consequently, I develop a conditioned tendency (however slight after this single occurrence) when I next see a red mango to infer that it is sweet. The increasing propensity to make this inference makes <redness in a mango an epistemic affordance, a possibility of inferring sweetness.
    You don’t have to accept my analysis (though millions have!). I put it forward merely in order to illustrate how affordances need not be related to bodily behaviour.

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